| Asymmetries in bargaining |
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26 April 05.
The big lesson from Adam Smith is that people trade when there is benefit to both sides from doing so. If the widget is worth a dollar to the owner, but it's worth two dollars to a potential buyer, then they'll find each other and trade, maybe for $1.50, and both sides are better off by fifty cents. I.e., the seller gave up a dollar in value in the widget but gained $1.50 in cash while the buyer gave up $1.50 cash but gained two dollars in widget value. We conclude that letting people trade is a good thing, and the more trading the better. The question that the rest of this column asks is: how is that dollar surplus divided? Pricing at $1.50 seems fair, but any price between $1.01 and $1.99 will work.
The bigger side winsThe next step in the evolution of neoclassical economics as taught to every econ undergrad ever is to assume an infinite number of sellers. Then, they will out-price each other until they are making zero profits. In the above example, prices would fall to exactly $1, which is what a widget is worth to the seller. The buyer then scores all the surplus, and gains a full dollar in value instead of fifty cents as above.But there are also a potentially infinite number of buyers, who each would be willing to trade for $1.99. Why is it that the model assumes that sellers score all of the surplus of the trade? The question is especially poignant for the more theoretical theorists, who are happy to think not of buying widgets with cash, but of buying cash with widgets. In the reversed situation, the names in the sides of the market are reversed, but nothing else has changed. [The standard solution is to have heterogeneous buyers and sellers, some of whom are scoring surplus and some of whom aren't. But then, there seems to be a mantra throughout the literature that profits go to zero, but no corresponding mantra that consumer surplus also goes to zero. You can delay the creation of asymmetry arbitrarily far through undergraduate micro, but it eventually turns up.] Whatever the reasoning, the assumption that the buyers get all the surplus has immediate political implications, because it means that the seller is barely scraping by. Raise taxes, impose more laws, make any sort of costly intervention and the price will immediately rise by exactly the cost of the intervention, because the price is exactly the cost of production, no more. But with an infinite number of buyers and only one seller, the story would be that there's lots of fat in the price, and the seller is indeed making profits and won't go out of business if forced to comply with environmental regulations. The practical effect of the assumption that profits go to zero for all suppliers (and it is just an assumption in the end) is that companies get to whine. As a matter of fact, the vast majority of successful companies actually do make a profit. That means that the widget is not getting sold for exactly a dollar, but somewhere between a dollar and two.
There's a standard little exercise they make you do in undergrad econ
class, the right glove/left glove problem, where you calculate the prices
in equilibrium for right gloves and left gloves when there are R
Now consider labor. As anyone who has ever been on the market knows,
there are few openings and many people to fill them. The scarcity is on
the hiring side, and (barring the exceptions and caveats), the surplus
will lean toward the hiring side as well. That is, the surplus is going
toward the company. There are more people than companies, and that ain't
gonna change any time soon.
And so, point number one about policy: the side which is in the minority
probably has no right to whine. That is usually the capital side of
the capital-labor team.
Meanwhile, the laborers are in quite a bind, because their prices can
be driven arbitrarily low. The solution to the asymmetry on the labor
side of things is to make labor more scarce: take a million workers and
turn them into one unit for bargaining purposes--that is, unionize. You
can find a hundred cute stories about unions have set arbitrary dumb
rules, or historical corruption in these organizations, or a million
other details great and small that unions messed up. But they solve a
fundamental problem which really has no other solution: the bargaining
process between labor and employer is fundamentally asymmetric and so
one expects that most of the surplus will go to the employer. The only
solution is to kill most of the workers (the black plague solution)
or to unionize.
Again, capital wins out over labor on this one. If we're on the job
market, we probably need that job to buy food; if we're on the capital
market, we're probably looking for maximum profit. Now say you're the
government and you're deciding who you want to tax: the capitalists will
walk away if the tax rate is too high; the laborers will just grumble at
higher taxes and keep chugging on. And so, capital gains are taxed at a
lower rate than labor. [tech speak: the elasticity of capital provision
is higher than the elasticity of labor provision, so the distortionary
effects of taxes will be greater for capital.]
I would love to see the unions of the world protest when capital taxes
are lowered and therefore labor bears a higher burden. I would love to
see the Teamsters go on strike until the President signs through a rise
in the capital gains tax and an according lowering of the general income
or social security tax. But I guess that'll never happen, and labor has
no threat point of any sort.
Another little detail of the law which gives capital an edge over labor is
that there are very few restrictions on the movement of capital across
borders, but very strong restrictions on immigration. A company can
readily say `Lower my taxes or I'll move to France' because France will
be happy to take the company in; a laborer in the same position would
need to spend up to a decade dealing with paperwork before moving. Wages
may be higher for your work in Windsor or Vancouver than in Detroit or
Portland, but you're not invited.
But, you're thinking, all the companies move to Mexico, and I don't really
want to move there myself. First, parts of Mexico are rather nice. Second,
you should still care because laborers and companies in Mexico are in the
midst of the same negotiations. Why is it so easy for companies to cut
costs by moving to Mexico? Because Mexican workers can't leave; trapped,
their wages can be driven to an arbitrarily low level. That makes it
easy for U.S. companies to threaten to leave, which lowers the taxes on
U.S. companies and thus raises the burdens on U.S. workers. Worried that
your wages will fall if an imaginary flood of immigrants should cross the
border? Your wages are already falling because capital can flood across
the border to where the labor is. There are loads of other considerations,
but generally, restricting labor's movement causes labor to suffer.
To summarize all this: there is always some surplus to any fair trade,
and there is no economic law about how that surplus is divided. One
general rule of thumb is that the less populous side of the market will
generally get more of the surplus--that means employers, not laborers.
Another general rule is that the side which can walk away from the trade
can get more of the surplus--that means employers, not laborers. These
facts about the world have immediate implications to anyone who thinks
that workers should be getting more of the surplus from selling their
labor. First, unions are a good thing, and laws which fetter their
bargaining ability should be stricken. Second, allowing immigration
is good, because letting capital move freely but tying labor down only
limits the bargaining ability of the labor side. The natural state of
things is already an asymmetric bargaining position; why make it more
asymmetric by passing laws that restrict labor but not capital?
[link] [74 comments]
Replies: 74 comments
on Wednesday, April 27th, Andy said
I think the reason that the models assume a finite number of buyers and an infinite number of sellers is that preferences are assumed to be exogenous (yeah, yeah, I know, just roll with it for now) so the individual and aggregate demand curves are fixed, but if there is profit to be made, anyone is willing to become a seller but supply curves are fixed because of technological limitations. I.e., the demand side is fixed, but anyone would be willing to become a supplier. on Wednesday, April 27th, Zoe said
Nice post. Re mobility of labor, that only applies to jobs that are not linked directly to place. It might be easy to move a factory down to Mexico or a telephone call center to India, but that corner bagel shop in Manhattan isn't going to do much good anywhere else. Most jobs are somewhere in the middle of that spectrum, and the owners of the place-linked jobs, who have essentially joined a default geographical union, are going to kick & scream against any immigration changes.
on Thursday, April 28th, D said
I think B's characterization of the low skill labor market is dead on. There are more sellers than buyers. While education is increasing (the majority of people now have a high school diploma) the skills needed for jobs are increasing more quickly. That's why real wages have gone down since 1972 or so. Which creates the bargaining situation B describes above. (sorry to be so econ 101y forgive me- i'm a sociologist) on Sunday, null , said
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